in order that we might no longer serve sin” (6:6)? And why does he describe the redeemed as sold under or indentured to sin (7:14)? And why does he ask who will rescue him from this body of death (7:24) when he has affirmed in chapter 5 that Christ has already done this? Moreover, if Paul is speaking of the present conflict of the Christian, why does he continue to refer to the observance of the law in this section when believers are no longer under the law but under grace? In my view, Paul is not
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