in the narrative of St. Luke and St. Paul is the placing of the consecration of the chalice after the meal; Matthew and Mark do not take any special notice of this peculiar circumstance. When Matthew and Mark wrote, it must have already been customary in their locality to put the two consecrations together. Does that mean that Paul and his disciple Luke still suppose an actual separation? At least in this case there would be some basis for the related opinion that in the early community the Eucharist