So what I am suggesting is that the Hebrew Bible, when viewed in its final historical context (on the eve of the Christian era), is already messianic in a NT sense. When the NT says that the OT is fulfilled in Jesus, it means that we can identify Jesus as the Messiah because He fits the picture of the Messiah in the OT. The proof that the Gospel is true (and I believe there is a proof here) lies not only in an accurate prediction, but also in an accurate identification of Jesus with the one promised
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