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Isaiah 27:7

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27:7Has the Lord struck down Israel like he did their oppressors?17

Has Israel been killed like their enemies?18

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Footnotes

  1. 17 The Hebrew text reads literally, “Like the striking down of the one striking him down does he strike him down?” The meaning of the text is unclear, but this may be a rhetorical question, suggesting that Israel has not experienced divine judgment to the same degree as her oppressors. In this case “the one striking down” refers to Israel’s oppressors, while the pronoun “him” refers to Israel. The subject of the final verb (“does he strike down”) would then be God, while the pronoun “him” would again refer to Israel.
  2. 18 The Hebrew text reads literally, “Or like the killing of his killed ones is he killed?” If one accepts the interpretation of the parallel line outlined in the previous note, then this line too would contain a rhetorical question suggesting that Israel has not experienced destruction to the same degree as its enemies. In this case “his killed ones” refers to the one who struck Israel down, and Israel would be the subject of the final verb (“is he killed”).

In other versions

ESVEnglish Standard Version

Has he struck them as he struck those who struck them?

Or have they been slain as their slayers were slain?

NIVNew International Version (2011)

Has the Lord struck her

as he struck down those who struck her?

Has she been killed

as those were killed who killed her?

CSBChristian Standard Bible

Did the Lord strike Israel

as he struck the one who struck Israel?

Was Israel killed like those killed by the Lord?

NLTNew Living Translation

Has the Lord struck Israel

as he struck her enemies?

Has he punished her

as he punished them?

LEBThe Lexham English Bible

Does he strike him as he struck down those who struck him?

Or is he killed as those who killed him were killed?

KJV 1900King James Version

Hath he smitten him, as he smote those that smote him?

Or is he slain according to the slaughter of them that are slain by him?