John 11:32–35

Footnotes

1. 63 Or “the Judeans”; Grk “the Jews.” Here the phrase refers to the friends, acquaintances, and relatives of Lazarus or his sisters who had come to mourn, since the Jewish religious authorities are specifically mentioned as a separate group in John 11:46–47. See also the notes on the phrase “the Jewish leaders” in v. , “the Jewish people of the region” in v. , and the word “people” in v. .
2. 64 Or (perhaps) “he was deeply indignant.” The verb ἐνεβριμήσατο (enebrimēsato), which is repeated in John 11:38, indicates a strong display of emotion, somewhat difficult to translate—“shuddered, moved with the deepest emotions.” In the , the verb and its cognates are used to describe a display of indignation (Dan 11:30, for example—see also Mark 14:5). Jesus displayed this reaction to the afflicted in Mark 1:43, Matt 9:30. Was he angry at the afflicted? No, but he was angry because he found himself face-to-face with the manifestations of Satan’s kingdom of evil. Here, the realm of Satan was represented by death.
3. 65 Or “greatly troubled.” The verb ταράσσω (tarassō) also occurs in similar contexts to those of ἐνεβριμήσατο (enebrimēsato). John uses it in 14:1 and 27 to describe the reaction of the disciples to the imminent death of Jesus, and in 13:21 the verb describes how Jesus reacted to the thought of being betrayed by Judas, into whose heart Satan had entered.
4. 66 Grk “And he said.” Because of the difference between Greek style, which often begins sentences or clauses with “and,” and English style, which generally does not, καί (kai) has not been translated here.
5. 67 Or “Where have you placed him?”
6. 68 Grk “They said to him.” The indirect object αὐτῷ (autō) has not been translated here for stylistic reasons.
7. 69 Jesus wept. The Greek word used here for Jesus’ weeping (ἐδάκρυσεν, edakrusen) is different from the one used to describe the weeping of Mary and the Jews in v. 33 which indicated loud wailing and cries of lament. This word simply means “to shed tears” and has more the idea of quiet grief. But why did Jesus do this? Not out of grief for Lazarus, since he was about to be raised to life again. L. Morris (John [], ) thinks it was grief over the misconception of those round about. But it seems that in the context the weeping is triggered by the thought of Lazarus in the tomb: This was not personal grief over the loss of a friend (since Lazarus was about to be restored to life) but grief over the effects of sin, death, and the realm of Satan. It was a natural complement to the previous emotional expression of anger (11:33). It is also possible that Jesus wept at the tomb of Lazarus because he knew there was also a tomb for himself ahead.